Discussion

   The operation  is defined for all non-zero x and y by the equation .  Then the expression  is equal to
(A)
(B)...
(C)...
(D)...
(E)...
(F)...
*This question is included in Nova Press: Set D - Defined functions, question #8

The solution is

Posted: 03/09/2012 09:43
Why would (x/y)/z = x/y . 1/z. Shouldn't it be = (x/y)/(1/z) or x/y . z/1?
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Contributor
Posted: 03/09/2012 12:00
Russell, when you divide by something, eg, z, it is the same as multiplying by its inverse, ie, 1/z.

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