Discussion
The operation is defined for all non-zero x and y by the equation . Then the expression is equal to
*This question is included in Nova Press: Set D - Defined functions, question #8
(A) | |
(B) | ... |
(C) | ... |
(D) | ... |
(E) | ... |
(F) | ... |
The solution is
Posted: 03/09/2012 09:43
Why would (x/y)/z = x/y . 1/z. Shouldn't it be = (x/y)/(1/z) or x/y . z/1?
Posted: 03/09/2012 12:00
Russell, when you divide by something, eg, z, it is the same as multiplying by its inverse, ie, 1/z.